In what way, and with what implications, does reverse discrimination against goods that have not moved between the Member States and are in a purely internal situation defy the logic of the single market (as suggested in this quote)?

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Quote:

Reverse discrimination: “An experienced lawyer will notice the paradox of a single market in which barriers to trade between Portugal and Denmark are prohibited, whilst barriers to trade between Naples and Capri are immaterial.” (Paragraph 28 of the Opinion of Advocate General Tesauro in Joined Cases C-363/93 and C-407-411/93, Lancry v. Direction Generale des Douanes.)

The discrimination against a member of a majority or dominant group and it seeks to redress any existing social inequalities. The discrimination against goods has shifted from the member states thus affecting the member states in unprecedented ways. Such scenarios are characterized by the logic that the member states should have the priority and have significant trade priorities in comparison to the non-member states…

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